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A 24-year-old patient presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. Labs show glucosuria and ketonemia. Which hormone deficiency is most likely responsible?

A. Insulin
B. Aldosterone
C. Vasopressin
D. Calcitonin
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Why is insulin the correct answer here?

Insulin deficiency leads to decreased cellular glucose uptake, causing hyperglycemia and glucosuria. The body breaks down fat, producing ketone bodies (ketoacidosis), which explains ketonemia. The classic triad is polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss.

Give me a memory trickHow would this present clinically?Any exceptions?
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Related concepts

  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Ketoacidosis
  • Glucose metabolism
  • Insulin physiology
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